Here's a scenario:
1 unmanaged switch.
connected to this switch are:
1 server (dhcp, LAN default gateway, amongst others) 10.10.10.1 / 255.255.255.0 dhcp hands out 10.10.10.x
2+ computers (dhcp clients)
1 cable/dsl modem with a publically routable IP range (lets say 64.233.187.96-99 / 255.255.255.252)
the modem (64.233.187.96, publically routable IP range) is connected to the un-managed switch, but does not have any of the other IP's associated with any computer's NIC.
I was once under the assumption that because the subnets are different, the two networks can't - SEE - eachother, but after some brief reading on the purpose of subnetting, i'm confused. it appears (one of) its purposes is to help define a chunk of ip addresses that have been allotted. such that:
10.42.219.84 / 255.255.255.255
is the same as
10.42.219.84 / 255.255.255.0
is the same as
10.42.219.84 / 255.135.028.238
the only difference being the first one is the only possible IP, the second one is in a range of 254 contiguous IPs (1-254), while the third is in a range of ? non-contiguous IPs.
(if i had three PCs assigned with the IP/subnet masks of above, there'd be an IP conflict)
is this correct?
questions:
1. what is the relationship between the public ip range and the private LAN?
2. can the public (ISP) and the private (intranet) IP's -SEE- eachother, if no compter has a PUBLIC ip associated with a NIC?
3. what is the relationship between the public and private IP's:
a. if i assign one of the PC's NIC a PUBLIC ISP IP?
b. if i assign said pc with both the public AND a private IP?
c. if i assign static routes on said PC such that all private IP requests are routed to the LAN's gateway, and set the public IP with a lower metric than the LAN such that all non-private IP requests are transmitted to the PUBLIC ISP IP? ie:
NIC:
IP:10.10.10.5 / 255.255.255.0
IP:64.233.187.97 / 255.255.255.252
gateway:10.10.10.1 metric 10
gateway:64.233.187.96 metric 5
route add 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 10.10.10.1 /p
route add 172.16.0.0 mask 255.240.0.0 10.10.10.1 /p
route add 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 10.10.10.1 /p
4. why must i have a public IP assigned to a PC for it to 'see' amd be able to use the public IP gateway?
Please let me know if i need to clarify, AND THANKS IN ADVANCE for any helpful suggestions/answers.
if your comment is not constructive/helpful, please keep it to yourself!
HunterDG
1 unmanaged switch.
connected to this switch are:
1 server (dhcp, LAN default gateway, amongst others) 10.10.10.1 / 255.255.255.0 dhcp hands out 10.10.10.x
2+ computers (dhcp clients)
1 cable/dsl modem with a publically routable IP range (lets say 64.233.187.96-99 / 255.255.255.252)
the modem (64.233.187.96, publically routable IP range) is connected to the un-managed switch, but does not have any of the other IP's associated with any computer's NIC.
I was once under the assumption that because the subnets are different, the two networks can't - SEE - eachother, but after some brief reading on the purpose of subnetting, i'm confused. it appears (one of) its purposes is to help define a chunk of ip addresses that have been allotted. such that:
10.42.219.84 / 255.255.255.255
is the same as
10.42.219.84 / 255.255.255.0
is the same as
10.42.219.84 / 255.135.028.238
the only difference being the first one is the only possible IP, the second one is in a range of 254 contiguous IPs (1-254), while the third is in a range of ? non-contiguous IPs.
(if i had three PCs assigned with the IP/subnet masks of above, there'd be an IP conflict)
is this correct?
questions:
1. what is the relationship between the public ip range and the private LAN?
2. can the public (ISP) and the private (intranet) IP's -SEE- eachother, if no compter has a PUBLIC ip associated with a NIC?
3. what is the relationship between the public and private IP's:
a. if i assign one of the PC's NIC a PUBLIC ISP IP?
b. if i assign said pc with both the public AND a private IP?
c. if i assign static routes on said PC such that all private IP requests are routed to the LAN's gateway, and set the public IP with a lower metric than the LAN such that all non-private IP requests are transmitted to the PUBLIC ISP IP? ie:
NIC:
IP:10.10.10.5 / 255.255.255.0
IP:64.233.187.97 / 255.255.255.252
gateway:10.10.10.1 metric 10
gateway:64.233.187.96 metric 5
route add 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 10.10.10.1 /p
route add 172.16.0.0 mask 255.240.0.0 10.10.10.1 /p
route add 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 10.10.10.1 /p
4. why must i have a public IP assigned to a PC for it to 'see' amd be able to use the public IP gateway?
Please let me know if i need to clarify, AND THANKS IN ADVANCE for any helpful suggestions/answers.
if your comment is not constructive/helpful, please keep it to yourself!
HunterDG