Hi!
I can't believe this...I'm stuck on such a simple thing.
I have two 3660 routers.
R1(fa0/0.ip)R1(fa1/10.noip)--cable-->R2(fa0/1.ip)
R1 has a 16 port Ethernet module in slot 1. I have a cable going from fa1/10 on R1 to fa0/1 on R2.
fa0/1 on R2 has an ip address, but fa1/10 does not due to being a L2 port(I can't set one even if I try). Finally, I have port fa0/0 on R1 configured w/an IP address.
The ip address on fa0/0 of R1 and fa0/1 on R2 are in the same subnet.
I want to ping fa0/1 port on R2 from R1 fa0/0 visa versa. For whatever reason I can not. I assumed that the pings would get forwarded onto port fa0/0 since fa1/10 is on the same switch.
Why isn't it working?
Thanks!
I can't believe this...I'm stuck on such a simple thing.
I have two 3660 routers.
R1(fa0/0.ip)R1(fa1/10.noip)--cable-->R2(fa0/1.ip)
R1 has a 16 port Ethernet module in slot 1. I have a cable going from fa1/10 on R1 to fa0/1 on R2.
fa0/1 on R2 has an ip address, but fa1/10 does not due to being a L2 port(I can't set one even if I try). Finally, I have port fa0/0 on R1 configured w/an IP address.
The ip address on fa0/0 of R1 and fa0/1 on R2 are in the same subnet.
I want to ping fa0/1 port on R2 from R1 fa0/0 visa versa. For whatever reason I can not. I assumed that the pings would get forwarded onto port fa0/0 since fa1/10 is on the same switch.
Why isn't it working?
Thanks!