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MPLS Question - help!!

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icw27

IS-IT--Management
Nov 22, 2002
15
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I have studied the Cisco Press book for the 640-910 exam and when I was revising (by flicking through TK) I found this question which I think is wrong:

Q. The VPN named my_vpn is operating on interface s0/0 of a PE-router. The CE-PE routing protocol is RIP. The MPLS backbone IGP is OSPF. However, when you review the configuration for the PE-router, you find that BGP has been configured.
What explains this configuration?

A. VPN routes are always imported and exported using MP-BGP
B. This router is configured improperly.
BGP is not needed for this configuration.
C. This router is configured improperly.
E-BGP is the required routing protocol between PE-CE
routers.
D. BGP should be configured on all routers supporting MPLS
to ensure backward-compatibility reasons for earlier
version of IOS.

TK says the answer is C, but I think the answer is A. I don't think E-BGP is the "required" protocol between PE-CE. CE routers can use RIP, OSPF, Static or BGP. B is obviously wrong as MP-BGP is needed to carry VPNv4 routes. D is wrong because backbone routers only need to run an IGP. That leaves me A. A I think is right because VPNv4 addresses can only be exchanged between MP-BGP peers.

Can some CCIP or MPLS expert please confirm this?

Many thanks. I'm hoping to sit my MPLS exam on Friday so a quick response would be appreciated!!.
 
hi
how u got a reply.. i just joined today ...but your reasoning is 100 % ... i am writing my 642-611 next friday so the stuff is still fresh in the grey matter

Regards
 
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