We just set up an office in the UK that is on our phone system and I configured toll bypass by routing UK bound calls through the system there. I got it working but only by doing something I thought was wrong.
When we dial the UK from Dallas we do not dial the leading zero (0) in front of the city code. People in the UK need to dial it (I think, at least thats what I was told). So when I route a call to the UK through ARS I was stripping the 01144 and inserting the 0 to make it look like a locally sourced call. I kept getting a message about the number not being recognized. I traced it then tested with a phone that was in the UK dialing zero and it worked. The trace looked exactly the same as the other call that failed. Then I stopped inserting the (0) and it started working.
Can anyone explain how this is suppossed to work?
When we dial the UK from Dallas we do not dial the leading zero (0) in front of the city code. People in the UK need to dial it (I think, at least thats what I was told). So when I route a call to the UK through ARS I was stripping the 01144 and inserting the 0 to make it look like a locally sourced call. I kept getting a message about the number not being recognized. I traced it then tested with a phone that was in the UK dialing zero and it worked. The trace looked exactly the same as the other call that failed. Then I stopped inserting the (0) and it started working.
Can anyone explain how this is suppossed to work?