BGP

[onlinecorp]

Can someone clarify this? I have 2 T1s with one carrier and 1t1 with another. After implimenting BGP I now have all my traffic routing through one carrier and none on the other. I am being told that with BGP this is way it is supposed to work. That the other carrier is just a fail over. I thought that I could config during regular operations that I can use all my T1 bandwidth and only during a failure does it switch to the other carrier?
Does anyone know for sure how this is supposed to work???
Can I use all my bandwidth and only BGP on failure???

 

[jneiberger]

Sbonete, in my example the addresses were assigned by AT&T so you would expect them to aggregate them. However, not all ISPs do that. In many cases, for this very reason, some ISPs won't aggregate small prefixes into their larger supernets--it really messes up all of us smaller customers trying to do multihoming with /24s. This example doesn't fit his situation perfectly, but it may have something to do with it.

No, I am not Sam Halabi! LOL Sam has more knowledge of BGP in his little finger than I do in my whole body, I think.

 

[baddos]

onelinecorp.... you don't want all of your traffic to go across both ISP's in an equal cost load balancing scenario.

Now, if you were accepting two full views (full routing tables), then you could load balance on a per-destination basis.