Sorry to start this thread here, but I couldn't find a forum for Avaya networking solutions, so I figured I'd try my hand here.
Our company has recently purchased two ERS3500-series switches to connect our VOIP subnet, and we have a few questions about configuration. You see, we purchased these switches to be dedicated VOIP switches, so the things connected to them are going to be one of the following:
1. IP Phones (either handset or DECT antennas).
2. Other VOIP switches.
3. The voicemail/other VOIP application server.
4. The IP Office.
5. The connection to the gateway interface.
This entire system is supposed to be under a dedicated VOIP subnet, including the switches itself. We're trying to avoid implementing multiple subnets, and multiple VLANs, in this switch if at all possible--but we also want to make sure that these things prioritize voice properly.
The script that Avaya provides is supposed to be an easy, set-and-forget way of plugging IP Office into port 1, your data gateway to port 2, and PCs/phones/both in ports 3 on. It creates a Voice Enabled VLAN and a Data VLAN over two separate subnets and configures each separately. I get that phones tend to use specific tags that allow the switch to recognize that it is in fact supposed to run on the voice VLAN, versus PCs which don't bother with this and thus go untagged (and thus the data VLAN), but it feels like a lot of cruft that can be cut out of our configuration.
So I went and ran the script and tried to pick out the settings I needed and apply only those. However, one thing I noticed was the existence of the "Voice-VLAN"(voice-enabled) flag, and that if I'm only using one VLAN, that VLAN can't be voice-enabled. So I guess I need to ask questions like:
1. What the heck does the Voice-VLAN flag do, and is it needed in a single-subnet environment?
2. What can I do to ensure that come hell or high water the signal between my phones and either the VM server or the IP Office module isn't degraded?
3. Can I manage to replicate the effects of the script over a single VLAN, or do I need to find some way of bifurcating the subnet over two separate VLANs, if that's possible (why no, I didn't go to network engineering class, why did you ask?)?
I get that this particular forum isn't necessarily the best place to ask these questions, as this is an IP Office forum, but as I said, I couldn't figure out a better place to put it. Your suggestions of where to relocate it (aside from various bodily orifices) is greatly appreciated.
Thanks,
LC
Our company has recently purchased two ERS3500-series switches to connect our VOIP subnet, and we have a few questions about configuration. You see, we purchased these switches to be dedicated VOIP switches, so the things connected to them are going to be one of the following:
1. IP Phones (either handset or DECT antennas).
2. Other VOIP switches.
3. The voicemail/other VOIP application server.
4. The IP Office.
5. The connection to the gateway interface.
This entire system is supposed to be under a dedicated VOIP subnet, including the switches itself. We're trying to avoid implementing multiple subnets, and multiple VLANs, in this switch if at all possible--but we also want to make sure that these things prioritize voice properly.
The script that Avaya provides is supposed to be an easy, set-and-forget way of plugging IP Office into port 1, your data gateway to port 2, and PCs/phones/both in ports 3 on. It creates a Voice Enabled VLAN and a Data VLAN over two separate subnets and configures each separately. I get that phones tend to use specific tags that allow the switch to recognize that it is in fact supposed to run on the voice VLAN, versus PCs which don't bother with this and thus go untagged (and thus the data VLAN), but it feels like a lot of cruft that can be cut out of our configuration.
So I went and ran the script and tried to pick out the settings I needed and apply only those. However, one thing I noticed was the existence of the "Voice-VLAN"(voice-enabled) flag, and that if I'm only using one VLAN, that VLAN can't be voice-enabled. So I guess I need to ask questions like:
1. What the heck does the Voice-VLAN flag do, and is it needed in a single-subnet environment?
2. What can I do to ensure that come hell or high water the signal between my phones and either the VM server or the IP Office module isn't degraded?
3. Can I manage to replicate the effects of the script over a single VLAN, or do I need to find some way of bifurcating the subnet over two separate VLANs, if that's possible (why no, I didn't go to network engineering class, why did you ask?)?
I get that this particular forum isn't necessarily the best place to ask these questions, as this is an IP Office forum, but as I said, I couldn't figure out a better place to put it. Your suggestions of where to relocate it (aside from various bodily orifices) is greatly appreciated.
Thanks,
LC