KFCColonel
MIS
Our business is moving from 56k lines to T1 lines. Currently, each remote office has a 56k connection (thru a bay router) back to our main office. I am installing a new Cisco 1720 router at each remote office with a T1 card with a built in CSU/DSU.
For a month, I want to have both lines (56K & T1) active from the home office to all remote offices. This way there is redundency in case of a line problem with the T1 or 56k.
The 56k line is running RIP. The T1 is running OSPF.
We will eventually stay with OSPF. All the PC's have a default gateway of 192.168.120.1
The Bay 56K router at the remote office has this config.
E0 of 192.168.120.1
S0 of 192.168.20.2 (home office router S0 is 192.168.20.1)
The Cisco T1 router at the remote office has this config.
E0 of 192.168.120.1
S0 of 192.168.175.2 (home office router S0 is 192.168.175.1)
Note that the E0 on both routers has the same IP address.
Also, the 56K line is connected to a cisco 3640 at the home office and the T1 line is connected to a 7200 router at the home office. Both the 3640 and the 7200 routers ethernet interfaces are connected to the same Cisco 5500 switch at the home office.
My take on this is that there will be no problem having the same IP address on the E0 of the remote office routers and that the least cost path will always be used. (T1 on OSPF). And if the T1 line goes down, that data will just start moving across the 56K line automotically. Is this theory correct or am I missing something??
Thanks.
For a month, I want to have both lines (56K & T1) active from the home office to all remote offices. This way there is redundency in case of a line problem with the T1 or 56k.
The 56k line is running RIP. The T1 is running OSPF.
We will eventually stay with OSPF. All the PC's have a default gateway of 192.168.120.1
The Bay 56K router at the remote office has this config.
E0 of 192.168.120.1
S0 of 192.168.20.2 (home office router S0 is 192.168.20.1)
The Cisco T1 router at the remote office has this config.
E0 of 192.168.120.1
S0 of 192.168.175.2 (home office router S0 is 192.168.175.1)
Note that the E0 on both routers has the same IP address.
Also, the 56K line is connected to a cisco 3640 at the home office and the T1 line is connected to a 7200 router at the home office. Both the 3640 and the 7200 routers ethernet interfaces are connected to the same Cisco 5500 switch at the home office.
My take on this is that there will be no problem having the same IP address on the E0 of the remote office routers and that the least cost path will always be used. (T1 on OSPF). And if the T1 line goes down, that data will just start moving across the 56K line automotically. Is this theory correct or am I missing something??
Thanks.