Hi there,
Any help, or advice anyone can give me with this would be very much appreciated.
My company's LAN is on a range of 172.17.10.0/24
We have over 450 clients which we now need to create IPSEC VPN tunnels to. We don't need to VPN to the whole client LAN, just to a Linux server inside their LAN.
We will probably install a Cisco ASA 5520 to enable us to create all of these tunnels.
My question is this:
Example, If Client A has an internal IP range of 172.17.10.0/24 (which is the same as our LAN IP range), and we try to create an IPSEC VPN Tunnel to them, I presume we will get IP confilts and it will not work.
So, to resolve this, I am proposing that we put an additional network card in the client server, assign it a 192.1.1.0/24 address, and VPN to that.
1) Is my presumption of the conflict correct?
2) Would my proposed solution work?
3) Is there another option available to me (such as some kind of NAT)?
Any help would be very much appreciated.
Thanks!
Note: Also posted (incorrectly) in the TCP/IP forum.
Any help, or advice anyone can give me with this would be very much appreciated.
My company's LAN is on a range of 172.17.10.0/24
We have over 450 clients which we now need to create IPSEC VPN tunnels to. We don't need to VPN to the whole client LAN, just to a Linux server inside their LAN.
We will probably install a Cisco ASA 5520 to enable us to create all of these tunnels.
My question is this:
Example, If Client A has an internal IP range of 172.17.10.0/24 (which is the same as our LAN IP range), and we try to create an IPSEC VPN Tunnel to them, I presume we will get IP confilts and it will not work.
So, to resolve this, I am proposing that we put an additional network card in the client server, assign it a 192.1.1.0/24 address, and VPN to that.
1) Is my presumption of the conflict correct?
2) Would my proposed solution work?
3) Is there another option available to me (such as some kind of NAT)?
Any help would be very much appreciated.
Thanks!
Note: Also posted (incorrectly) in the TCP/IP forum.