Greetings,
I'm trying to write a view that resides in one db1."table" (that doesn't contain the same table as db2) and selects from db2.Lease table. Both db's are in the same SQL Server. I thought I read somewhere that a view you are executing (selecting) from an application had to have reside in the database you are selecting the data from?
Thanks, Craig
I'm trying to write a view that resides in one db1."table" (that doesn't contain the same table as db2) and selects from db2.Lease table. Both db's are in the same SQL Server. I thought I read somewhere that a view you are executing (selecting) from an application had to have reside in the database you are selecting the data from?
Thanks, Craig