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unassigned DID going to voicemail

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coniglio

Technical User
Jun 17, 2003
1,886
US
i have an unassigned DID. Doesn't exist anywhere in the PBX. There is a mailbox on this DID but nothing in the PBX is pointing this DID to voicemail. When i call this DID I am getting the mailbox. How is this possible? If the DID is unassigned shouldn't I be getting the attendant or overflow or something else based on the config of the CDB? I am at a loss as to how this is possible. Thank you for your help.
 
Go to ld 20, do the following:
ld 20
REQ: prt
TYPE: dnb
CUST 0
DN xxxx (the DID number you are looking for)


Most likely it's a ACDN. You can remove it from LD 23

LD 23
REQ out
TYPE acd
CUST 0
ACDN xxxx (the DID number you want to remove)


 
it's not. that's my point. It's non-existent as far as I can see. And for all you doubting thomases, here's the proof:

REQ: prt
TYPE: dnb
CUST 0
DN 7672
DATE
PAGE
DES

SCH0881
No valid DN can be found starting with specified digits.
------------------------------------
REQ: prt
TYPE: ludn
CUST 0
DN 767

CUSTOMER 00 - UNUSED DNS:
7672



 
I have since discovered that ALL unassigned DIDs are going to either the DID's mailbox (we moved a bunch of people but noone bothered to delete the mailbox) or, if no mailbox for particular DID, the caller goes to auto attendant. In LD 21 the CTVN is set to ATN for DID calls. I guess somewhere in the CDB the ATDN is set to the voicemail DN. Could this be possible? thanks for all your help.
 
I think I figured it out. My AODN is set to the voicemail DN in the CDB. The overflow treatment for DID calls goes to ATN. So this must be why callers are going to the auto attendant instead of my operator, right? Please correct me if I'm wrong. Thank you everyone.
 
Have you printed the IDC tables to see if it is being converted before it reaches mail?? LD 49 if you are unfamiliar.
 
it's not IDC-ing anywhere. I was right. The overflow DN is the voicemail DN so now it makes sense. Thanks shirleynot
 
The calls should only hit the AODN after the timer expires, meaning the attn doesn't answer. Does the attn ever get calls to vacant number??
 
the CDB is set to route vacant DIDs to the ATN. I am pretty sure the ATN prompt correlates with the AODN, which is the Attendant Overflow DN. So calls to non-assigned DIDs are going to look at the AODN (this is what i got from the NTPs anyway). I think you're telling me the calls should first route to the attendant DN. I don't know if she ever gets any but so far every unassigned DID i've called has pointed to the AODN (which is defined with the voicemail DN). The operator has an M2616 set by the way, not a console.
 
Well Shirleynot, you got me thinking and it seems that calls should not get to the AOP until the AQTT expired. In this instance it's set to 30 (30 seconds?) I am getting the auto attendant right away so this must have something to do with the fact that there's no console, just an M2616 set. Am i correct?
 
If you don't have a 2250 console, your system is always in the night mode. The AODN will never be looked at. Check in the CDB to see what NIT1 is set for. It is probably voicemail.
 
NIT1 is also set to the voicemail DN. so i didn't understand the NTP correctly. It said for DID calls to vacant DN the treatment is ATN, which then somewhere seemed to correlate with the AOP. obviously i misunderstood. Thanks for yourhelp.
 
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