goombawaho
MIS
Okay, here's the hardware setup before my question.
Arris TM502G cable modem (Wide Open West = ISP) connected to a Linksys unmanaged 4 port switch. From there, two CAT5 cables connected - one goes to a desktop computer and the other goes to a router. All the PCs behind the router have internet connectivity as does the standalone computer.
Here's the strange thing. The router has an outside IP address and the PC is getting another completely different IP address.
Why is the ISP providing two ip addresses through one modem??? I mean, this is why there was the boom in home routers - to share internet connections because most providers will only give you one IP address per modem (unless that modem is actually) a gateway. But this is not the case here, because it is providing two outside addresses.
This must be a mistake on the ISP's part to allow this.
Arris TM502G cable modem (Wide Open West = ISP) connected to a Linksys unmanaged 4 port switch. From there, two CAT5 cables connected - one goes to a desktop computer and the other goes to a router. All the PCs behind the router have internet connectivity as does the standalone computer.
Here's the strange thing. The router has an outside IP address and the PC is getting another completely different IP address.
Why is the ISP providing two ip addresses through one modem??? I mean, this is why there was the boom in home routers - to share internet connections because most providers will only give you one IP address per modem (unless that modem is actually) a gateway. But this is not the case here, because it is providing two outside addresses.
This must be a mistake on the ISP's part to allow this.