I've just checked my two favourite reference books, but neither Bryson
1 nor Fowler
2 has anything to say that throws any light on this.
But there is a related question on which they both agree: on the
number (singular or plural) of the verb following an
neither/nor construct. In most cases, the verb should be singular:
Neither Bill Gates nor Jeff Bezos is infallible. That sounds right to me.
But consider the case where the nouns are both plural:
Neither the men nor the women has anything. That sounds wrong. And what about where there is a mixture:
Niether Bill Gates nor his fellow philanthropists [has? have?] considered the problem.
In cases like these, Bryson says that the verb should agree in number with the noun that is closest to it. So in that last example, the verb should be
have because philanthropists are plural.
Fowler cites several more complications, including:
Neither you nor I [is? am? are?] the right person for the job and
Neither employer nor employees will say what [he wants? they want?]. Fowler says that, rather than face these uncertainties, the "wise man" will rephrase the entire sentence. (He doesn't say what the wise woman would do.)
1. Bryson, Bill.
Troublesome Words, Penguin 1997.
2. Fowler, H.W.
Modern English Usage, Oxford 1968.
Mike
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Mike Lewis (Edinburgh, Scotland)
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