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MVS/Cobol/DB2 Why so complicated? 1

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Truusvlugindewind

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Jun 5, 2002
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It works like that for soo long that you stop wondering why. I start wondering again:

When you have MVS/Cobol accessing DB2 in batch, you cannot just code EXEC PGM=whatever. No, you start humming supertramp's song "take the long way home" and build JCL to either take the IMS/BMP tour, or, emulate a TSO session and code IKJEF01. We've gone through some upgrades from MVS/SP to OS/390. But this was never "solved" (yes I know, you need a problem first before you can solve).

Maybe it is not a problem, but it strikes me as stupid. I know IBM is not stupid, so there is something I don't understand.

Can anyone explain?
 
(Speaking from "theory" reading the books - and not from any personal knowledge)

When you execute DB2 programs under batch TSO (IKJEFT01) - this is because you are using "CAF" See:


and


It is, however, also possible to run a BATCH job "directly" using "RRSAF" - see:


and in those cases you DO code
EXEC PGM=yourpgm

Bill Klein
 
Dag Truusje,

At big mainframe sites, the DB2 databases are also connected to IMS. Because of transactions in several environments, there is communication to the place where things are coordinated. The databases should not be corrupted in any way. A single batch job in a shared environment is not able to do such a coordination. If you are working with your own, dedicated databases, it can perhaps be done easier, if the management of your manaframe environment allows you to work that way.

Regards,

Crox
 
Thank you Bill for the "de-mistyfication" *.



* if that is not an english word I just invented a new one :)
 
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