I always thought NAT was used to translate private network addresses to public. On a simple lan, with a low end firewall (Sonic, Servgate...) you simply "Activate" NAT. So one of my questions would be, when you activate NAT, does it simply use the one public address assigned to it and translate all outgoing data to use this IP address- so it's actually PAT?? With Cisco, on a pix 501 box, NAT seems to require you to create an address pool of public addresses for each private ip address you are using. And this address pool would have a 1:1 correspondence with all private addresses within your lan- that is to say each private ip address has an available public address. This seems to defeat the purpose. And maybe this is where PAT comes in. My understanding is that PAT will actually translate all private (or public) ip addresses behind the firewall to a single public IP address. Is this correct?? Are the low end firewalls simply using PAT rather than NAT??
Can somebody please help me understand this issue. I'd really appreciate it.
Can somebody please help me understand this issue. I'd really appreciate it.