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I though I understood this but...

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bwoodley

IS-IT--Management
Apr 2, 2003
20
US
Ok, it was my assumption that if a computer used tcp/ip and exsisted on a subnet say '192.168.1.0' '255.255.255.0', its gateway had to exsist within the same subnet as well..

how does this configuration work? I'm in need of some understanding...

ip 192.168.1.80
gateway 192.168.0.5 (Internet router in another location)
subnet 255.255.255.0

the client can function on the internet just fine... to my knowledge it should only be able to talk with ip's 1-254... on the 1.0 network. funny thing is that there actual route leaving that building is 1.1!!!! WTF? static route possibly?

what am I missing here? how does this work?

Thanks for your time!
 
The ARP table might also be helpful (arp -a).

The route may be adapting to your network automatically (Which most servers do) and Routing and Remote Access is good about that as well if your using that to do server based routing..

But otherwise .0 is normally known usually as the Broadcast octet.

--------
Jason Burton
Starloop International
jasonburton@us.starloop.com
(im confident with my spam fighting solution)
 
Try a traceroute as well. Theoretically what you are describing is not possible. Is it possible that the netmask was actually 255.255.0.0?

Echo the ipconfig and arp responses.


pansophic
 
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