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Getting target DB timestamp

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sam93

Programmer
Jul 19, 2002
65
CA
Hi,

I have a simple requirement. I am not sure what's the best way to do it.

I have type 2 dimensions in my target DB (Oracle) with EFFECTIVE_FROM and EFFECTIVE_TO date columns. We want to poplulate these with database server system date and not the Informatica server system date. What is the best way to populate these columns? I can do lookup on DUAL table to get SYSDATE from the database in my mappings, but it will be done for every record I process which is not necessary since the date will be the same for all the records processed in one session execution.

Thanks.
 
Use a post-SQL expression in the target-definition. That way you'll be firing off a database update that will use the server system date by default..

Ties Blom

 
Thanks Ties. Do you mean something like UPDATE <target> SET EFFECTIVE_FROM = SYSDATE .....?
 
AFAIK you can use any valid SQL DML in the post-SQL part, which would be like the syntax you mention..

Just go ahead and give it a try..

Ties Blom

 
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