Hi,
Fairly new to this forum - normally involved in Meridian Telco space but was hoping someone may have run into a similar scenario here.
Based in the UK, I would like to terminate an E1/q931 circuit onto a cisco 3640, and use this to route voice calls to and from a PBX.
Current set-up:
PBX A is currently connected via TIE trunk to cisco 3640 A, and passes voip traffic to cisco 3640 B (at a separate site), this in turn is connected via TIE trunk to PBX B, which is connected to E1/Q931 for outbound/inbound calls.
Historically, this enabled us to use the 'already in place' infrastructure from PBX B, and tack on PBX A without having to order a complete new E1 circuit. Since this was built, volume of calls has substantially increased to PBX A, neccessitating the change.
Would like to:
Move away from the E1 circuit terminating on PBX scenario (to allow for an easier move towards voip solutions in future) by having cisco 3640 A terminate inbound/outbound calls for PBX A.
The potential problem could be mapping the PCM stream from PBX A (TIE trunk) to cisco 3640 A, then to external circuit without the call having to go through the cisco's DSP (ie, packetise the stream).
Is anyone familiar with this ? My boss has muttered something about time slice 'drop and insert' - would that be a way to route the e1/e1 calls throught the router without having any packet translation take place? Would it really matter if the pcketisation *did* take place ??
Some of the config from router A, showing how the current E1 controller is set-up and mapped is detailed below :
!
controller E1 1/0
pri-group timeslots 1-12,16
translation-rule 1
Rule 0 ^0 90
!
!
interface Serial1/0:15
no ip address
no logging event link-status
isdn switch-type primary-net5
isdn overlap-receiving
isdn protocol-emulate network
isdn incoming-voice voice
isdn T310 60000
no isdn outgoing display-ie
no cdp enable
!
Thanks in advance for any help/thoughts.
Cheers,
Paul
Fairly new to this forum - normally involved in Meridian Telco space but was hoping someone may have run into a similar scenario here.
Based in the UK, I would like to terminate an E1/q931 circuit onto a cisco 3640, and use this to route voice calls to and from a PBX.
Current set-up:
PBX A is currently connected via TIE trunk to cisco 3640 A, and passes voip traffic to cisco 3640 B (at a separate site), this in turn is connected via TIE trunk to PBX B, which is connected to E1/Q931 for outbound/inbound calls.
Historically, this enabled us to use the 'already in place' infrastructure from PBX B, and tack on PBX A without having to order a complete new E1 circuit. Since this was built, volume of calls has substantially increased to PBX A, neccessitating the change.
Would like to:
Move away from the E1 circuit terminating on PBX scenario (to allow for an easier move towards voip solutions in future) by having cisco 3640 A terminate inbound/outbound calls for PBX A.
The potential problem could be mapping the PCM stream from PBX A (TIE trunk) to cisco 3640 A, then to external circuit without the call having to go through the cisco's DSP (ie, packetise the stream).
Is anyone familiar with this ? My boss has muttered something about time slice 'drop and insert' - would that be a way to route the e1/e1 calls throught the router without having any packet translation take place? Would it really matter if the pcketisation *did* take place ??
Some of the config from router A, showing how the current E1 controller is set-up and mapped is detailed below :
!
controller E1 1/0
pri-group timeslots 1-12,16
translation-rule 1
Rule 0 ^0 90
!
!
interface Serial1/0:15
no ip address
no logging event link-status
isdn switch-type primary-net5
isdn overlap-receiving
isdn protocol-emulate network
isdn incoming-voice voice
isdn T310 60000
no isdn outgoing display-ie
no cdp enable
!
Thanks in advance for any help/thoughts.
Cheers,
Paul