I'm setting up a few IP phones that are located in an office Europe. My PBX is in America. The connection is over a VPN.
I have a remote PRI Gateway over there, which also connects to my phone system via the Internet over a VPN. So if they want to make an external call, I can just route it our via that remote PRI gateway, and it's a local call. So it's all good so far. The trick is this: people there are used to dial '0' to get an outside line, not '9'. In my system, '0' is for the operator. I assume if I were to put those phones in a separate tenant, I could set up a different dial plan for that tenant, but I've never worked with multiple tenant in the system and don't want to do it. Can I still do something with '0' if I already put those phones in their own LOC-ID with ALOCL command?
I have a remote PRI Gateway over there, which also connects to my phone system via the Internet over a VPN. So if they want to make an external call, I can just route it our via that remote PRI gateway, and it's a local call. So it's all good so far. The trick is this: people there are used to dial '0' to get an outside line, not '9'. In my system, '0' is for the operator. I assume if I were to put those phones in a separate tenant, I could set up a different dial plan for that tenant, but I've never worked with multiple tenant in the system and don't want to do it. Can I still do something with '0' if I already put those phones in their own LOC-ID with ALOCL command?